use of english+key, do szkoły

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PAPER
USE OF
ENGLISH
3
GENERAL DESCRIPTION
STRUCTURE AND TASKS
Paper format
The paper contains five parts.
PART 1
Timing
1 hour 15 minutes.
Task type
Multiple-choice cloze.
No. of parts
5.
and focus
Emphasis on vocabulary.
No. of questions
65.
Format
A modified cloze test containing 15 gaps and
followed by 15 four-option multiple-choice items.
Task types
Multiple-choice cloze,
open cloze, key word
transformations, error
correction, word formation.
No. of Qs
15.
PART 2
Answer format
Candidates may write on the
question paper, but must
transfer their answers to the
separate answer sheet within
the time limit.
Candidates indicate their
answers by shading the correct
lozenges or writing the
required word or words in a
box on the answer sheet.
Task type
Open cloze.
and focus
Grammar and vocabulary.
Format
A modified cloze test containing 15 gaps.
No. of Qs
15.
PART 3
Task type
Key word transformations.
and focus
Grammar and vocabulary.
Format
10 separate items, each with a lead-in sentence
and a gapped second sentence to be completed in
2 to 5 words, one of which is a given ‘key word’.
Marks
Parts 1, 2, 4 and 5 – each
correct answer receives 1
mark.
Part 3 – each answer receives
up to 2 marks.
No. of Qs
10.
PART 4
Task type
Error correction.
and focus
Emphasis on grammar.
Format
A text containing errors. Some lines are correct
but most contain an extra incorrect word which
must be identified.
No. of Qs
15.
PART 5
Task type
Word formation.
and focus
Vocabulary.
Format
A text containing 10 gaps. Each gap corresponds
to a word. The stems of the missing words are
given beside the text and must be changed to
form the missing word.
No. of Qs
10.
28
fce examination |
paper 3: use of english
The five parts of the
Use of English paper
PART 3 – KEY WORD TRANSFORMATIONS
The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary.
PART 1 – MULTIPLE-CHOICE CLOZE
Sample questions and answer key: pages 33 and 35.
In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary.
Each answer in Part 3 receives up to 2 marks.
Sample task and answer key: pages 32 and 35.
Part 3 consists of ten key word transformations (plus an
example). Each question contains three parts: a lead-in
sentence, a key word, and a second sentence of which only the
beginning and end are given. Candidates have to fill the gap in
the second sentence so that the completed sentence is similar
in meaning to the lead-in sentence. The answer must be
between two and five words, one of which must be the key
word. The key word must not be changed in any way.
Each correct answer in Part 1 receives 1 mark.
Part 1 consists of a text in which there are 15 gaps (plus one
gap as an example). Each gap represents a missing word or
phrase. The text is followed by 15 sets of four words or phrases
(A, B, C, D), each set corresponding to a gap. Candidates have
to choose which one of the four words or phrases in the set
fills the gap correctly.
In this part of the paper a wide range of structures such as
reported speech, passive voice, conditionals, verb tenses and
modals is tested. In addition, phrasal verbs and lexical phrases
such as
‘to look forward to –ing’
may also be tested.
Different types of words are tested in this part. Sometimes it is
necessary to choose between words with a similar meaning,
e.g. choosing ‘
leaking
’ rather than ‘
spilling
’, ‘
pouring
’, ‘
flowing
’ to
fill the gap in ‘
The roof of our tent was …..
’ . At other times it will
be necessary not simply to know the meaning but also to
know which word is correct because of the preposition, adverb
or verb form which follows, e.g. choosing ‘
interested
’ rather
than ‘
keen
’, ‘
enthusiastic
’, ‘
eager
’ to fill the gap in ‘
You may be …..
in applying for this job
’. This part of the paper also tests
collocations, such as ‘
to pay attention to
’, and linking phrases
such as ‘
even if
’. Phrasal verbs are also tested here. They may
be tested in three different ways; the whole of the phrasal
verb, e.g. ‘
keep on
’, just the verb itself, e.g. ‘
keep
’, or just the
preposition or adverb which follows the verb, e.g. ‘
on
’.
Each answer in Part 3 is worth 2 marks. The mark scheme
splits the answer into two parts and candidates gain one mark
for each part which is correct.
PART 4 – ERROR CORRECTION
The focus of this part is grammar.
Sample task and answer key: pages 34 and 35.
Each correct answer in Part 4 receives 1 mark.
PART 2 – OPEN CLOZE
Part 4 consists of a text which resembles something that a
student at this level might have written. The text consists of
seventeen lines, most of which contain an error of the sort
typically made by learners at FCE level, e.g. incorrect verb
forms, wrong pronouns, prepositions and articles.
The focus of this part is grammar and vocabulary.
Sample task and answer key: pages 33 and 35.
Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 1 mark.
Candidates must write on their answer sheet the word which
is wrong. However, a certain number of lines do not contain an
error and in these cases candidates must put a tick (
) on
their answer sheet. The absence or misuse of capital letters is
ignored, although spelling must be correct.
Part 2 also consists of a text in which there are 15 gaps (plus
one gap as an example). However, in this part, as there are no
sets of words from which to choose the answers, candidates
have to think of a word which will fill the gap correctly. The
answer will always be a single word, never a phrase. In some
cases, there may be more than one possible answer and this is
allowed for in the mark scheme. The absence or misuse of
capital letters and punctuation is ignored, although spelling,
as in all parts of the test, must be correct.
The first two lines of the text are examples: one of the lines
will be correct; the other will contain an error. There are
fifteen lines which are tested.
fce examination |
paper 3: use of english
29
PART 5 – WORD FORMATION
Encourage your students to plan their time carefully and
not spend too long on any one part of the test. They should try
to make sure that they have a few minutes at the end of the
test to check through their answers. They can do the various
parts of the test in any order, but it is probably better to do
them in the order of the question paper so as to avoid the
possibility of putting answers in the wrong sections of the
answer sheet.
In this part there is an emphasis on vocabulary.
Sample task and answer key: page 35.
Each correct answer in Part 5 receives 1 mark.
Part 5 consists of a text in which there are ten gaps plus one
gapped line as an example. There is one gap per line. At the
end of each line, and separated from the text, there is a word
in capital letters. Candidates have to produce a new word
based on this word which can be correctly inserted in the gap
in the line.
By part
PART 1
Give your students practice in recognising the differences
in meaning between similar words, e.g.
‘cut’
and
‘tear’
. They
should try to learn whole phrases as well as individual words
in context, and they should be aware that knowing the
grammatical patterns and collocations of words is as
important as knowing their meaning.
Preparation
Remind your students to make sure the answer they choose
fits into the sentence. They should not choose their answer
simply after reading the words which come before the gap;
they need to read the words which follow as well. It is
sometimes the case that a preposition or adverb which follows
a gap determines which of the options is correct.
General
There is a title to all of the texts in the paper. This is meant
to give candidates an early idea of what to expect from the
text. Encourage your students to read through the whole of the
text so that they have a clear idea of what it is about, before
they begin to answer any of the questions. Once they have
done this, they should begin answering the questions.
Get your students used to reading all the options for any
question before deciding which one fills the gap correctly, and
remind them that they should never choose more than one
option as the answer.
Each part of the test has an example towards the beginning
(two examples in the case of Part 4). Students should get used
to reading these to help them understand what they have to
do. Remind them that in the examination they must not write
the answer to the example on their answer sheet.
Make your students aware that it is important that the line
they make in the lozenge on the answer sheet for each answer
is firm and clear and done in pencil.
Sometimes candidates may think that more than one
answer is possible to certain questions. Advise them not to
give more than one answer as this may result in their losing
marks. If they do give two or more answers and all are
acceptable, they will, of course, be awarded the mark.
However, if they give more than one answer and one of them
is wrong, they will lose the mark.
PART 2
As in Part 1, candidates need to read the words which
follow the gap as well as those which come before it. Tell your
students that they should make sure that if they are filling the
gap with a verb it agrees with its subject.
Remind your students to keep in mind a sense of the whole
text.
Sometimes candidates may decide that the answer they
have written is wrong and wish to change it. If this happens in
Part 1, they will need to rub out the mark they have made in
the lozenge. In Parts 2, 3, 4 and 5, they should clearly cross or
rub out the word or words. They should not try altering the
word itself as this will make it unclear. They should not put
the word in brackets as it will appear to be an alternative.
Make your students aware that they must use only one
word to fill each of the gaps. They should not fill any of the
gaps with a contraction (e.g.
didn’t, he’ll
), when these count as
two words, and they should never use abbreviations (e.g. ‘
sthg
’
for ‘
something
’).
PART 3
Give your students practice in completing the answer sheet.
When transferring answers to the answer sheet, they must be
careful to make sure that they put the answer by the
appropriate question number.
In preparing for this part of the paper, give your students
practice in paraphrase. This might include rewriting sentences
from texts, saying things again ‘in other words’, as well as
working on lexical synonyms and grammatical
transformations. In the examination, they must make sure
that the answer makes the second sentence mean the same as
the lead-in sentence.
Make your students aware that correct spelling is essential
in all parts of the paper.
Remind your students that handwriting should be clear so
that it can be read easily by the markers.
30
fce examination |
paper 3: use of english
30
Remind your students that the answer must consist of two,
three, four or five words. If candidates write more than five
words they will not be awarded the marks.
Sometimes the missing word will need to be in the plural,
and sometimes it will need to be in a negative form. The sense
of the text around the gap will help candidates decide if it is
necessary to put the word in the plural or to make it negative.
Remind your students that they must use the key word in
their answer and they must not change it in any way. If they
do not use it or if they alter it, they will not be awarded the
marks.
Make your students aware that answers will not always
need only prefixes or suffixes to be added to a word;
sometimes they will need to make internal changes (e.g. ‘
long
’
to ‘
length
’).
Make sure your students pay careful attention to any verb
in the final part of the second sentence as it will often indicate
whether to use a singular or plural noun in the key.
Remind your students that the base word at the end of each
line applies only to that line. They must not try to form a word
from that base word in any other line. In every case the base
word at the end of the line will have to be changed.
Remind your students that when writing their answers,
they should not write the whole or parts of the second
sentence; they should write only the words that are needed to
fill the gap.
When they are counting the words, students should
remember that, as in Part 2, they must count contracted words
(with the exception of
‘can’t’ = ‘cannot’
) as the full form (e.g.
‘
didn’t
’ = 2 words ‘
did not
’).
PART 4
Students can practise for this part by reading through their
own work and that of their peers, trying to identify errors.
Students should practise reading the text slowly and
carefully as it is very easy to overlook the addition or omission
of small words, such as
‘a’
or
‘of’
.
) in the box on their answer sheet. They
must not leave the box blank as it will be assumed that they
have simply not attempted this item.
A sentence may be spread over several lines. Encourage
your students to read the whole sentence before deciding that
a word is wrong. Sometimes it will not be apparent that a
word early in a sentence is wrong until the whole of the
sentence has been read.
Remind your students that they must be sure that a word
they choose as being an error is actually wrong and not simply
a word which is not vital to the meaning of the sentence but
which is nevertheless appropriate. There will never be two
wrong words in one line.
Remind your students that the correct lines can appear in
any line of the text, including the first and last tested lines.
PART 5
Students should be made aware of the range of words
which can be formed from the same base word, e.g. ‘
compete
’,
‘
competition
’, ‘
competitor
’, ‘
competitive
’, ‘
competitively
’, and the
negative forms of these words, e.g. ‘
uncompetitive
’. In the
examination when they see the ‘base word’ at the end of a
line, they must not automatically write a related word which
they know well as their answer. They need to read the
surrounding sentence to decide what the missing word is.
fce examination |
paper 3: use of english
31
Remind your students that they must indicate a correct line
by putting a tick (
2
3
Part 1
1A
made
B
took
C
did
D
had
For questions
1-15
, read the text below and decide which answer (
A
,
B
,
C
or
D
) best fits each space.
2A
rather
B
quite
C
well
D
just
There is an example at the beginning (
0
).
Mark your answers
on the separate answer sheet
.
3A
watching out
B
looking out
C
looking after
D
watching over
Example:
0A
far
B
distant
C
remote
D
distinct
4A
across
B
out
C
away
D
past
0
A
B
C
D
5A
grew
B
felt
C
experienced
D
found
6A
reaching
B
increasing
C
expanding
D
completing
TWO CREATURES OF THE PAST – MAMMOTHS AND MASTODONS
7A
held
B
put
C
set
D
kept
The elephant has some
(0)
..... relatives called mammoths, which lived in the Stone Age. More than
8A
usual
B
frequent
C
regular
D
familiar
15,000 years ago people painted pictures of them on cave walls. Then, astonishingly, in 1799, a man
walking along the banks of the River Lena in Siberia
(1)
….. a startling discovery. Peering into a wall of
9A
when
B
while
C
as
D
even
ice, he could
(2)
..... see the shape of a massive, hairy mammoth, apparently
(3)
..... at him. He
10 A
preferred
B
enjoyed
C
desired
D
selected
immediately ran
(4)
..... in terror, but several days later he
(5)
..... the courage to return and cut the
mammoth’s tusks – its two enormous teeth – out of the ice to sell them. Mammoth tusks are the
11 A
turned
B
went
C
became
D
came
biggest teeth of any known creature, some
(6)
..... a length of five metres. These tusks were
(7)
..... to
12 A
quantities
B
amounts
C
totals
D
numbers
good use, protecting the mammoths’ young from other animals, and brushing away snow.
13 A
addition
B
combination
C
attachment
D
connection
To most of us, mammoths are probably the most
(8)
..... of the elephant’s extinct relatives, but
14 A
transformations
B
adjustments
C
diversions
D
changes
thousands of years earlier, in the woodlands of eastern North America, lived another of the elephant’s
relatives called the mastodon. Like mammoths, mastodons may also have had a hairy coat, but
(9)
.....
15 A
led
B
caused
C
guided
D
influenced
mammoths mainly ate grass on the plains, mastodons
(10)
..... to eat twigs and leaves.
We do not know why mastodons
(11)
..... extinct. However, computer studies of the decrease in
mammoth
(12)
..... suggest that it was a particular
(13)
..... of over-hunting by humans, and
(14)
..... in
the climate at that time which
(15)
..... to their disappearance.
0102/3 S03
0102/3 S03
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